Thomas Aquinas argues that ‘an unjust law is no law at all’, or at least “that which is not just seems to be no law at all”. (Aquinas in Dimock, ed., 2002, p. 19) (Aquinas credits Augustine for the quoted words.) But he also seems aware that a human law-giver might promulgate a command that has the form of law, and is enforced like law, but yet is unjust. How does he try to reconcile these two seemingly inconsistent claims? What does he mean when he says that ‘an unjust law is no law at all’? Is his defense of this claim plausible (believable, well-supported by his arguments)?
Assignment help 264
Solution:
15% off for this assignment.
Our Prices Start at $11.99. As Our First Client, Use Coupon Code GET15 to claim 15% Discount This Month!!
Why US?
100% Confidentiality
Information about customers is confidential and never disclosed to third parties.
Timely Delivery
No missed deadlines – 97% of assignments are completed in time.
Original Writing
We complete all papers from scratch. You can get a plagiarism report.
Money Back
If you are convinced that our writer has not followed your requirements, feel free to ask for a refund.